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Christian Texts and History • What if the original titulus crucis was "Christ"?

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I am inclined to think so because Klinghardt argues for "king of the Jews" being replaced by Mark in the place of the original "Christ" in the Pilate's question addressed to Jesus in *Ev, as part of the Mark's intention to make the trial a religious trial (i.e. motivated exclusively by religious accusations raised against Jesus, while in *Ev the accusation is also of political sedition). The translation (from the original "are you the Christ?" to the Markan editing "are you the king of the Jews?") was designed to make the Roman trial the mere transposition/mirror/reflection of the religious trial in order to reiterate the centrality of the latter.

At contrary, in *Ev it is the Roman trial that is more central than the religious trial (even if Jesus is beaten by synhedrites).

Of course a possible objection is the presence of "king of the Jews" in the titulus crucis in *Ev, a detail considered by me the more judaizing bit in absolute terms in *Ev, but nothing prohibits me from thinking that the original titulus crucis in *Ev (or in the his source) was: "Christ" and not "king of the Jews").

If thst was the case, then what?

The first Gospel story would be designed to make Jesus the Christ. Where "Christ" is meant as a human title for king. By introducing the translation ("king of the Jews:), Mark wanted to persuade the readers that the original jewish title had only religious implications, hence Pilate was merely derived in error by being persuaded that the title "Christ" meant simply "king of the Jews".

But in *Ev the sense is that Pilate understood directly "Christ" as bearing political implications: he didn't need a translation because the accusation itself was political and not (or not only) religious. Therefore Pilate asked: "Are you the Christ?" in full knowledge of the political meaning of "Christ".

If Klinghardt is correct, then Bermejo-Rubio is wrong, since Bermejo-Rubio insisted that none exegete has found a reason for the Christian use of "king of the Jews". While K has proved that there is indeed a Christian interest by Mark in replacing "Christ" with "king of the Jews".

Hence the next question is: why did the first gospel story had Jesus crucified as the Christ as per the same original titulus crucis?

The simplest answer to my knowledge: because only in this way the Christ could be proved to be a suffering figure.

Statistics: Posted by Giuseppe — Tue Jun 04, 2024 8:16 pm



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