because the first need of the propaganda among gentile masses required that the original myth was understood in clear sober, brief and seemingly historical terms. The alternative would have been to explain to everyone the cosmogony of the lower heavens, to explain to everyone the various password given by Jesus to descend in incognito through the lower heavens, to explain why the final password was not given hence the Jesus's silence caused his condemnation by the demons from Firmament. Without sharing the same cosmogony and the same demonology and angeology, hardly an agreement on few objective "facts" could be found easily.Why would an ancient religious writer have transformed a myth into such a sober, brief, and seemingly historical account?More correctly, I have then:
A very short epilogue for the first gospel.
Merely the more simple and direct translation of the original myth (= demonic ἄρχοντες τοῦ αἰῶνος τούτου crucifying Jesus in lower heavens) in earthly terms.
Statistics: Posted by Giuseppe — Wed Feb 28, 2024 12:30 pm