It interesting, however, that the term used was "anti-Christ" as opposed to "anti-Jesus" or "anti-Lord". If XY ΙΥ means Good Jesus, then converse Not-Good Jesus, or "Hostile Jesus" is an apt description.
If XY IY means Messiah Jesus, then we have the problem of the issue that Jesus himself didn't actually seem to be a Messiah in any traditional sense. Given that Jesus isn't even a traditional Messiah to begin with, what is a Not-Messiah Jesus? Perhaps it is something like an Evil Messiah Jesus, or in terms of the DSS, something like the Messiah of the Sons of Darkness?
The most explanatory use of antichrist in the NT is in the Johannine letters.
Who is the liar? Is it "whoever denies that Jesus is Good", or is it "whoever denies that Jesus is the Messiah"? Does either statement make sense?
If XY IY means Messiah Jesus, then we have the problem of the issue that Jesus himself didn't actually seem to be a Messiah in any traditional sense. Given that Jesus isn't even a traditional Messiah to begin with, what is a Not-Messiah Jesus? Perhaps it is something like an Evil Messiah Jesus, or in terms of the DSS, something like the Messiah of the Sons of Darkness?
The most explanatory use of antichrist in the NT is in the Johannine letters.
20 But you have an anointing from the Holy One, and all of you know the truth. 21 I do not write to you because you do not know the truth, but because you do know it and because no lie comes from the truth. 22 Who is the liar? It is whoever denies that Jesus is the Christ. Such a person is the antichrist—denying the Father and the Son. 23 No one who denies the Son has the Father; whoever acknowledges the Son has the Father also.
Who is the liar? Is it "whoever denies that Jesus is Good", or is it "whoever denies that Jesus is the Messiah"? Does either statement make sense?
Statistics: Posted by rgprice — Tue Feb 13, 2024 7:49 am