Thanks for the comment and yes, you are right, I'm now realizing I should probably rephrase the hypothesis. So what I meant by the synoptic Last Supper was actually the last Passover supper (Passover Seder). This Passover supper is described only in the synoptic gospels, not in the Gospel of John. I admit that Johannine's account is also some kind of supper so this could be also described as the Last Supper. But it is not described as a Passover supper.When you say the "Last Supper" happened a year before Jesus' crucifixion, what do you mean by "last supper"? What would differentiate it from any other supper Jesus had with his disciples? If it happened a year before Jesus was crucified then it wouldn't be a "last supper".
Another thing I want to clarify is that the synoptic gospels actually conflated these two events: the last Passover supper (one year before Jesus' crucifixion) and the last supper in the Gospel of John (one day before Jesus' crucifixion with the Judas betrayal). So what I'm saying is that only the Passover part in the synoptic Last Supper was misplaced.
For anyone not familiar with this problem, basically, my hypothesis is a solution to the contradiction between the Gospel of John and the synoptic gospels. Jesus shouldn't have eaten the Passover supper a day before his crucifixion because according to the Gospel of John, he died before the Passover even started (or at the very moment when the Passover day started). There are many solutions to this, for example, it was only a symbolic Passover supper or they had different calendars (Qumranic), but none of them I find satisfying. But if the last Passover supper was actually a year before Jesus' crucifixion then I see no problem with it.
Statistics: Posted by AdamKvanta — Thu Jun 20, 2024 9:26 pm