It is a known fact that virtually all Christian scriptures were produced on codices. The codex was quite new in the 2nd century and not widely adopted. It occurs to me that the use of codices would likely have been more expensive than scrolls.
Firstly, is that true? If all Christian scriptures were on codices because the first Christian scriptures were on codices, what would that say about the production of the first Christian scriptures? It may imply that the producer(s) of the earliest Christian scriptures were affluent and well connected.
Additionally, it occurs to me that one may have used "new technology" to produce the "New Testament". Like producing a story about the future using monition pictures at the turn of the 20th century, al la, Metropolis, etc.
Given that essentially all scriptures are on codices, if the use of the codex was associated with the concept of a "New Testament", then it implies that the earliest scriptures came into existence all at once as the "New Testament".
Firstly, is that true? If all Christian scriptures were on codices because the first Christian scriptures were on codices, what would that say about the production of the first Christian scriptures? It may imply that the producer(s) of the earliest Christian scriptures were affluent and well connected.
Additionally, it occurs to me that one may have used "new technology" to produce the "New Testament". Like producing a story about the future using monition pictures at the turn of the 20th century, al la, Metropolis, etc.
Given that essentially all scriptures are on codices, if the use of the codex was associated with the concept of a "New Testament", then it implies that the earliest scriptures came into existence all at once as the "New Testament".
Statistics: Posted by rgprice — Thu Jun 06, 2024 5:22 pm