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Christian Texts and History • The refusal of a sign as a Judaizing passage found in *Ev

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When the crowd gathered with him, he began to speak, "This generation is an evil generation. It demands a sign, but a sign will be given to it".

(*Ev 11:29)

Why is it a judaizing passage?

Because the Temptation Story makes it clear that Jesus has to give no sign at all (apart the resurrection), because otherwise the suspicion may arise that he is the supreme god even in opposition to YHWH.

I had hoped for the absence of a such verse in *Ev but evidently it is not so.

This is the problem with the gospels. Even *Ev is a receptacle of different theologies, therefore Marcion was not so free from partial compromises with the ideology of the his own opponents.

Hence I remember that Bob Price gave the best definition of Marcion, as the first proto-catholic in absolute terms, since only in the first proto-catholic we can find harmonized the bits from both the different theologies (anti-demiurgism and Jewish piety).

Statistics: Posted by Giuseppe — Mon May 13, 2024 6:21 am



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