You don't know which Semitic source lies behind the Greek (in its various forms) and you can't show that - in its earliest usage - Ναζαρενος was a gentilic rather than an epithet (though you've assumed the former [ABD]). You might benefit from F.C. Burkitt's "Syriac Forms of New Testament Proper Names" [OUP for the British Academy] esp. p.16 and appendix 3. It's old (1912), but the general silence over it in the literature tells an interesting story.
Statistics: Posted by spin — Sat Apr 27, 2024 11:49 pm