[W]hat does that mysterious ΧΣ stand for, χριστός or χρηστός? The first word means 'anointed' in Greek, the second means 'good', and it is widely assumed that Jesus Christ is the 'Anointed One' - yet even that phrase does not appear anywhere in the New Testament.
John 1:41 and 4:25 both specifically use the word ‘Messiah’, which is the Hebrew word for ‘Anointed’, so Linssen is wrong about it never being used. There’s also the fact that the Synoptics all describe Jesus – or IS, if you like that better – in ways that align with the kinds of things Jews expected of the Messiah at the time; the description depicts an apocalyptic preacher who performs miraculous healings which are signs that he’s ‘the one who is to come’, and two of the Synoptics claim he was descended from David and born in Bethlehem, with Matthew in particular explicitly linking these to prophecies considered to be Messianic. Does Linssen explain why the Synoptics so consistently present the man they’re describing as fitting Messianic standards, if not because they were trying to portray him as the Messiah?
--Dr Sarah said April 22, 2024 at 1:49 pm
Statistics: Posted by dbz — Wed Apr 24, 2024 10:13 pm