it seems to me that you are victim of a false view about the argument by Reinach, insofar it appears here that you are thinking about the first answer by Ignatius: it is written.So the position is that Ignatius is referring to what his opponents consider to be in τὰ ἀρχεῖα in the first reference to the phrase.
Can we agree that both you and I agree that "it is written" means "it is written in the New Testament"? So Reinach, too.
Ignatius is pointing to a source apparently not consulted by the his opponents when the latter had queried the archives: the Old Testament.
Because otherwise it would be surprising, i.e. unexpected, i.e. improbable, that Ignatius refers the his interlocutors to the same object already consulted by them.
Do you understand now what is the first logical difficulty in your scenario?
(Here is Giusrppe who talks. Carrier has not yet answered).
Statistics: Posted by Giuseppe — Sat Mar 30, 2024 9:18 pm