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Christian Texts and History • Re: Jesus' home in Capernaum?

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That phrase "ἐν οἴκῳ ἐστίν" rendered in the interlinear as "in (the)-house he-is" (I added dashes). The noun "house" is in the nominative case, so it doesn't necessarily mean "his" house. The word-for-word translation adds "(the") as if a definite article is implied, but it could also just be indefinite, "a house" (presumably in town) so would be a house of a friend or associate. There is a way to denote that it was "his" house, but that construction was not used here.

Uh oh, my laptop is rattlin'. Gotta go.

DCH

Statistics: Posted by DCHindley — Thu Mar 07, 2024 3:07 pm



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