imho there are some problemsFor example, see what William Benjamin Smith wrote about Bethany:This Bethany is in the Syriac and therefore in the Aramaic Beth "ania" and this latter word has been variously interpreted incorrectly. The corresponding Hebrew stem recurs continually in the Old Testament in the primary sense of vex, afflict, and the derived sense of poor ("ani"). Now in Luke X, 40, it is said that Martha was vexing herself, and the Syriac word is precisely this same "ania," as it is also in the Sinaitic Syriac at John xii, 2 (as noted by Nestle, Phil. Sac, p. 20, and as it now stands in Burkitt's monumental Evangelion da-Mepharreshe, p. 492), where the received text in all the languages now presents served. Bethany, then, means house of her that vexes herself, and we see why John has made it the home of the self- vexing Martha. Whether there ever was such a village need not here be discussed. The obvious suggestion is that the name designates Judea or the Jewish nationality, the home of her that received the Jesus when he came thither from the Dispersion
(Ecce Deus, p. 105, n. 1, my bold)
- Reading the gospels in perfect harmony, one can believe because of GJohn (with the stories about Lazarus, Mary and Martha in Bethany) that the action of Luke 10:38ff (with Mary and Martha) takes place in Bethany. However, within Luke's very unclear geography, the unnamed location in GLuke 10:38ff is still very far from Jerusalem, most likely still in Galilee. William Benjamin Smith's theory seems to mix Luke's story with John's place name. The question arises from where Mark and Matthew got the place name with this meaning.
- Luke 10:40 says that Martha was driven around, busy, distracted (περιεσπᾶτο) by much work (physically and/or mentally). However, this does not express an emotion, but rather a state.
Statistics: Posted by Kunigunde Kreuzerin — Tue Feb 27, 2024 1:43 pm