That doesn't make sense. If *Ev was "innocently anti-messianic," then by the same logic a prior Mark could also be, and by the same logic Trocme's conclusion is unsupported because it fails to perceive the "innocently anti-messianic" nature of *Ev/Mark. Your conclusion is also unsupported, since it fails to perceive the obvious implication that if *Ev could be prior and "innocently antimessianic," so could Mark.Trocmé denies it. According to him, Mark 1-13 has Jesus denying he is the Christ, while the Passion story is all devoted to prove that Jesus is the Christ (therefore it is a late addition).Mark has a passion story.Under the Markan priority, proto-Mark, i.e. the first gospel, would be without the Passion story. It would be anti-messianic as by you described in the op.IF you're trying to save the priority of Mark,
WHY would you not interpret Mark,
THE PRIOR GOSPEL,
as being "anti-messianic in an innocent way"?
(i.e., having no such intention but being read that way later, against its true sense)
Obviously, the evidence that persuades Trocmé to believe this, is used by me to prove that Mark is reacting against *Ev.
In short, your understanding of a prior *Ev can also be applied to a prior Mark, which makes your protestations otherwise here a case of special pleading.
Statistics: Posted by Peter Kirby — Wed Feb 14, 2024 9:47 am