AdamKvanta wrote:I am just noting that Paul wrote in Greek but understood (claimed to understand) Aramaic. So, when he wrote (in Greek) in relation to an Aramaic word, he used the equivalent Greek word. He usually (almost invariably) did this. There are a very few exceptions when, instead of providing (ie using) the Greek word meaning the same as an Aramaic word, he used a transliteration instead. κηφας is one such.
The character or characters with whom he was interacting did not have a name which was widely understood at the time as meaning Petros. I should clarify this further. It was not at all at that time understood as meaning Petros!
Paul would have known the word in Aramaic as קיפא. It was the High Priest's family title.
I have argued this case; just read back if you need to refresh on this.
Code:
What do you mean that Paul usually provided translations for Aramaic words?The character or characters with whom he was interacting did not have a name which was widely understood at the time as meaning Petros. I should clarify this further. It was not at all at that time understood as meaning Petros!
Paul would have known the word in Aramaic as קיפא. It was the High Priest's family title.
I have argued this case; just read back if you need to refresh on this.
Statistics: Posted by PeterC — Thu Jan 23, 2025 2:40 pm