Yes. And I see you are too accommodating in your effort to fit this passage into Pauline theology. Earlier you attempted to paint it as though the Jews en masse were ripped out to make way for the gentile believers (except those who came through the door of faith in Jesus). That was blatantly false. Now you are trying to say that because this passage doesn't mention their redemption (or lack thereof) that you may insinuate the Jews can be redeemed. The fact that this passage which specifically blames the death of Jesus on the Jews - which Paul says nowhere else, nor hints at - is a surefire indicator of its post-Pauline nature. That it doesn't not say the Jews will be redeemed is the sort of squirming apologetic I am used to from a certain type of believer to squeeze meaning into the passage that's not in it. This is overt eisegesis, which is usually tendentious in purpose. Unlike Pauline passages about the naughty Jews, the speaker here dissociates himself from them and condemns them, leaving no scope for any positive outcome for the Jews. This is (later) church political, not Pauline.Do you see 1 Thes 2 explicitly denying that the Jews won't eventually be redeemed one day?
Statistics: Posted by spin — Sat Jan 11, 2025 9:23 pm