Christian Texts and History • Re: If in Antiquities, why not in War, also?

spin: "....See the issue?"

I guess not.

I do not see that this proves that Josephus cannot have mentioned Jesus here, after all, following "outrage" involving Pilate. And before an account not involving Pilate.

So you have avoided the issue. Typical. Do you grasp how grammatical anaphora works? If so, deal with it here. Don't give your best Dunning-Kruger response.

What was the preceding outrage? It doesn't take much effort for you to grasp the previous shocking event that set the Jews into an uproar.

Hint: it happened before the Jesus material.

The anaphoric reference binds the two passages together.

added later:
a) You have not shown that Josephus agrees with your interpretation of "rules" for what it is possible to write, nor that he followed such.

Can you show a few examples in AJ where anaphoric references are not transparent?

b) As far as I recall, scholars who are/were quite familiar with Josephus' text, including Steve Mason and the late, great Louis H. Feldman (who once kindly replied in snail mail to me) did not mention the issue that you propose.

You are supposed to be trying to put up an argument, not just a logical fallacy (functionally argumentum ad ignorantiam).

c) Plus, you ignored my other paragraphs, above.

I didn't ignore them. They were simply not relevant.

Statistics: Posted by spin — Sat Nov 09, 2024 6:36 pm

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