Yes this does occur to me, but it requires the Romans to know that letter to that level of detail and also go back, check the letter, and verify what Paul called Peter. Then decided to use "Cephas" since that's what Paul used. We don't really do this when we talk about "Peter" today. Most people refer to him as "Peter" even in places where Paul refers to Cephas. So, while possible, I do think it's still more likely that them as separate people than that they call him different names in different situations.Because it is referring to 1 Corinthians, in which Paul mentions Cephas (and Apollos). But Peter and Cephas could still be different people (or viewed as being different people by 1 Clement).
I don't see it as being a difficult thing for Romans or Corinthians to be familiar enough with Paul's letters to know that sometimes he says Peter and sometimes he says Cephas and that in a letter he wrote to Corinthians (1 Cor.) he says Cephas.
If only 1 Clement was addressed to Galatians, it might clear everything up regarding Peter and Cephas. But as it is, my take is that 1 Clement says Cephas because Paul says Cephas (and never says Peter) in 1 Corinthians.
Statistics: Posted by John2 — Wed Nov 06, 2024 5:47 pm