We've addressed this before, here but I'm still trying to get clarity on this.
Here is what the interlinear has: https://biblehub.com/interlinear/john/8.htm
John 8 in typical English translation (NASB) reads:
But exactly what these passages say is highly controversial, perhaps the most controversial passages in the entire NT. Unfortunately I don't know Greek so I can't really evaluate it much myself.
Young's literal provides this:
Howard Teeple provides this translation:
In "Who is Hiding in the Gospel of John?" April D. DeConick states (I apologize for the malformed Greek coming form PDF):
So, does DeConick have a point? What is the case for DeConick's reading?
Here is what the interlinear has: https://biblehub.com/interlinear/john/8.htm
John 8 in typical English translation (NASB) reads:
43 Why do you not understand what I am saying? It is because you cannot hear My word. 44 You are of your father the devil, and you want to do the desires of your father. He was a murderer from the beginning, and does not stand in the truth because there is no truth in him. Whenever he speaks a lie, he speaks from his own nature, for he is a liar and the father of lies. 45 But because I speak the truth, you do not believe Me. 46 Which one of you convicts Me of sin? If I speak truth, why do you not believe Me? 47 He who is of God hears the words of God; for this reason you do not hear them, because you are not of God.”
But exactly what these passages say is highly controversial, perhaps the most controversial passages in the entire NT. Unfortunately I don't know Greek so I can't really evaluate it much myself.
Young's literal provides this:
44 `Ye are of a father -- the devil, and the desires of your father ye will to do; he was a man-slayer from the beginning, and in the truth he hath not stood, because there is no truth in him; when one may speak the falsehood, of his own he speaketh, because he is a liar -- also his father.
Howard Teeple provides this translation:
You are from (your) father the Devil, and you want to do the desires of your father. That one was a murderer from the beginning and did not stand in the truth, because the truth is not in him. Whenever he speaks a lie, he speaks from his own (nature), because he is a liar and his father (is).
In "Who is Hiding in the Gospel of John?" April D. DeConick states (I apologize for the malformed Greek coming form PDF):
I became intrigued with Johannine theology when I noticed that the standard
English translations of John 8:44 obscure the Greek, which reads: uueic, ek TOU
Ticctpoc, TOO SiapoXou BOTE. With the article preceding natpoc,, the phrase TOU
5ia|36Aou is a genitive phrase modifying the nominal phrase EK TOU 7taTp6<;..
Thus: "You are from the father of the Devil." If the statement were to mean,
as the standard English translation renders it, "You are of the father, the
Devil," then the article preceding Ttcrcpoc, would not be present. In this case
the phrase, "father" would be in the predicate position and could be expanded
with an appositional phrase TOU 5icc(36Aou, a grammatical choice that the
author of John makes a few verses later in 8:56 when referencing Abraham:
'A(3pcc&u 6 romp uucov, "Abraham, your father."1
This literal reading is confirmed by the last segment of the verse (8:44f)
which straightforwardly acknowledges the present of two beings, the liar and
his father: ST<XV AocAfj TO- i|;eu5oc,, EK TGOV i5iu)v ACXAET, on \pevart]<; icrtiv mid
raxnjp ocvzov. The full verse reasons that the Devil lies since his nature is that of
a liar. Why? Because not only is the Devil a liar himself but his father is also a
liar. But this is not the sense of the standard English translation which is peculiar
and strained. It reads OCUTOU. as a genitive "it" referring to an unnamed
singular antecedent such as "lying" or "falsehood." Thus: 6 Ttocrrip OUTOU is rendered
in the standard English translation idiosyncratically, "the father of lies."
English translations of John 8:44 obscure the Greek, which reads: uueic, ek TOU
Ticctpoc, TOO SiapoXou BOTE. With the article preceding natpoc,, the phrase TOU
5ia|36Aou is a genitive phrase modifying the nominal phrase EK TOU 7taTp6<;..
Thus: "You are from the father of the Devil." If the statement were to mean,
as the standard English translation renders it, "You are of the father, the
Devil," then the article preceding Ttcrcpoc, would not be present. In this case
the phrase, "father" would be in the predicate position and could be expanded
with an appositional phrase TOU 5icc(36Aou, a grammatical choice that the
author of John makes a few verses later in 8:56 when referencing Abraham:
'A(3pcc&u 6 romp uucov, "Abraham, your father."1
This literal reading is confirmed by the last segment of the verse (8:44f)
which straightforwardly acknowledges the present of two beings, the liar and
his father: ST<XV AocAfj TO- i|;eu5oc,, EK TGOV i5iu)v ACXAET, on \pevart]<; icrtiv mid
raxnjp ocvzov. The full verse reasons that the Devil lies since his nature is that of
a liar. Why? Because not only is the Devil a liar himself but his father is also a
liar. But this is not the sense of the standard English translation which is peculiar
and strained. It reads OCUTOU. as a genitive "it" referring to an unnamed
singular antecedent such as "lying" or "falsehood." Thus: 6 Ttocrrip OUTOU is rendered
in the standard English translation idiosyncratically, "the father of lies."
So, does DeConick have a point? What is the case for DeConick's reading?
Statistics: Posted by rgprice — Tue Nov 05, 2024 9:56 am